> aka explain shortly
Did Jesus advocate for a violent communist overthrow? No.
Jesus taught pacifism, not violence (Matthew 5:9.38-39.43-48; 26:52).
He also didn't advocate for seizing and redistributing property, but promoted voluntary charity (Matthew 5:42; 19:21; 25:35-45; Mark 12:41–44).
Lastly, Jesus didn't advocate for opposing let alone overthrowing the worldly government, but to "render unto Caesar the things that are Caesar's, and unto God the things that are God's" (Matthew 22:21).
> Parable of the wicked farmers
The way I understand this parable (Matthew 21:33-46) is that it relates to the relation between God and the people, not between people themselves (landowners vs tenants). The landowner represents God, who prepared and gave the promised land/his kingdom (the vineyard) to his chosen people, Israel (the tenants). Thereafter he left his people/tenants to their own devices, expecting them to do their part of their contract (doing good work/keeping the laws of the covenant). The servants which are sent by the landowner represent the past prophets, which God sent to the people of Israel whenever the nation was drifting away from obeying God's covenant. Just like the servants are beaten and murdered by the tenants one after another, so too were several prophets killed by the Jewish people (e.g. Jeremiah, Zechariah ben Jehoiada). Lastly the landowner sends his own son, that is God sending his son Jesus, who too was killed by the tenants/the priesthood and pharisees. Thus the landowner drives the wicked tenants off his land and gives it to new tenants – that is the supersession of the old covenant by the new covenant. Thus its explained in the last verses of the parable: “Therefore I tell you that the kingdom of God will be taken away from you and given to a people who will produce its fruit. […] When the chief priests and the Pharisees heard Jesus’ parables, they knew he was talking about them" (Matthew 21:43-45).
Compare this also with the parable of the wedding banquet (Mt 22:1-14), which delivers the same message, and Isaiah 5, which Jesus undoubtedly references in his parable of the wicked tenants.
We have to keep in mind that we're dealing here with texts which were written around 2000 years ago and are rooted in Jewish tradition which reaches even further back. Thus I believe that interpreting them through the lens of a modern world view easily misses their original meaning. This was a time in which underpaid daylabourers and slavery were accepted norms, so much so that even Jesus used the metaphor of a master and his hirelings/slaves several times to describe the relationship between people and God (e.g. Matthew 24:45). Most translations of the New Testament avoid the word slave, using instead the rather euphemistic "servant", thus diluting the ancient world view. In the Greek original you'll find it to say δοῦλος (doulos) – slave. In a world were landless labourers and slaves are accepted realities of life, a landowner "wanting crops with no work" wouldn't be considered immoral.